FMLA Dilemma
HRGuyMS
21 Posts
If an employee is not eligible for FMLA (worked for the company only 6 months - less than 1250 hours), can you designate approved (unpaid) time away from work for a medical condition as FMLA leave and count that time towards the 12 week maximum?
Comments
DJ The Balloonman
Peyton Irby
Editor, Mississippi Employment Law Letter
Watkins Ludlam Winter & Stennis, P.A.
(601) 949-4810
[email]pirby@watkinsludlam.com[/email]
I have several employees who do not have enough hours to re-qualify for federal FMLA so I contaced our attorney regarding this and she advised NOT going over and above what the law requires regarding eligibility requirements. As she explained it, say you tell a person that you are granting them "FMLA" leave even though they don't qualify under the regs.. The person then uses all their "FMLA" and are later terminated. They can, and courts will probably agree with them, sue you saying that you can't count that time as FMLA because they didn't qualify for it. I don't like it but we, as a company, agreed NOT to go outside of the regulations regarding eligibility for this very reason.
We will agree to disagree unless I see a court decision or DOL interpretation that says otherwise.
I would grant the unpaid leave but would not apply it towards the FML. I would also want a specific date of return and appropriate documentation from dr. for release back to work.
Lisa
You no longer have a dilemna thanks to the wonderful assistance of your fellow HR professionals. It is not FMLA and in no way shape or form should it be classified that way. The only decision left for the company is if they wish to grant unpaid leave for the individual.
My $0.02 worth.
DJ The Balloonman
I think you're intent is to try to be a good employer, and that is commendable but the fact remains that the regulations state that once an employee meets the eligibility requirements, they get 12 weeks of unpaid leave off. If you try to go "above and beyond" and grant them the time off before they are qualified under the regs., that's great but you will still have to grant them the full 12 weeks once they become eligible. You cannot count time as FMLA until the employee meets the eligibility requirements. If you want to grant time off before they are eligible, great, but do NOT count it against the 12 week allotment until they are officially eligible.
I will agree with you that our attorney was speculating regarding a possible problem if we went outside of the regulations but I can guarantee you, I would not want to be the one explaining a lawsuit to my employer if something like that came to pass.
I found this in the regs (I didn't see what you were referring to anywhere. You seem to be substituting your opinion as law):
"Subject to section 103, an eligible employee shall be entitled to a total of 12 workweeks of leave during ANY 12-month period for one or more of the following:"
We define the 12 month period as rolling back from the date of request.
I don't need the DOL investigators advice. I believe in this situation it will vary depending on which investigator I talk to. I am comfortable with it and our attorney's are comfortable with the prospect of defending it.
By the way I don't think I ever said you should do it my way. I'm just offering up a different interpretation. Our GM's had routinely allowed leave before the one year eligiblity good, bad or indifferent. Then they complain that everyone is always out. So we tried something different. I try to balance production, law and doing the plain old right thing every day. And this is the result.
By the way, I do enjoy yours and Linda's insights. This is great debate and if you prove me wrong, I'll be the first one to tell you. In my opinion you haven't yet.
Let's assume we've done a good job hiring our folks.
If they really need the leave, it's a very nice way to get things off to a good start. How much will this mean to the employee...a lot.
If the employee is a piece of crap and trying to take advantage of the situation, I'm sure all of us can be creative enough to find another reason to sh&%can the person.
Here's the question I would ask: If there was no such thing as FMLA, how would you handle it? If you wouldn't help the person with a leave, then don't do it now. If you would be inclined to help them, just do it and don't bother the lawyers and other detached folks who don't know how to run businesses.
Don't let the lawmakers make the decisions for you. Don't do something to get your company in trouble, but make YOUR decision fit into what the law gives you.
So, HRGuy, it comes down to, What do you want to do?
If this is something that routinely happens or that's a real concern, I'd do a better job of hiring people. Good people like to work.
1. You're setting a precedence and would need to follow this example in future situations.
2. Once an employee becomes ELIGIBLE for FMLA leave as defined by government (after 1 year of service), then the employee can take 12 weeks of unpaid protected leave for eligible situations.
So, I think what the posters above me were saying is that you would exclude the non-eligible job protected unpaid leave time once the employee becomes eligible for FMLA leave. I know I've seen this situation described in some kind of newsletter or internet site, so I will look for the source to provide more information.
Very interesting debate!